Thursday, April 3, 2014
Answer 35
35. Choice C is the correct answer. Zithromax 1 gram PO times one dose is the recommended treatment for chlamydia urethritis. Alternate regimen is doxycycline 100 mg BID for 10 days. Flagyl is the recommended treatment for urethritis. Chlamydia shows high resistance against cipro.
Question 35
35. What is the recommended treatment for someone with positive chlamydia culture with urethritis?
A. Flagyl 2 grams PO times one dose
B. Cipro 500 mg PO times one dose
C. Zithromax 1 gram PO time one dose
D. Amoxicillin 1 gram PO times one dose
A. Flagyl 2 grams PO times one dose
B. Cipro 500 mg PO times one dose
C. Zithromax 1 gram PO time one dose
D. Amoxicillin 1 gram PO times one dose
Answer 34
34. Choice B is the correct answer. The diagnosis of prostate cancer needs to be confirmed and tissue is needed for this. Bone scan, CT of the abdomen and pelvis, and serum calcium level needs to be checked at some point for staging but transrectal ultrasound with biopsy is next most appropriate test to order.
Question 34
34. Your patient is a 65 year old male that presents with a PSA elevated at 10. His prostate exam reveals a nodule on the right and is non tender. His UA is negative. Which of the following is the next best test to order?
A. CT scan of Abdomen and Pelvis with 3 dose oral and IV contrast
B. Transrectal ultrasound with Biopsy
C. Bone Scan
D. Serum Calcium Level
A. CT scan of Abdomen and Pelvis with 3 dose oral and IV contrast
B. Transrectal ultrasound with Biopsy
C. Bone Scan
D. Serum Calcium Level
Answer 33
33. Choice A is the correct answer. Actually, the majority of patients that present with renal cell carcinoma have no symptoms and it is usually an incidental finding. Patients with advanced renal cell carcinoma present with flank pain, hematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass. The remainder of the answers are true.
Question 33
33. Which of the following is not true regarding renal cell carcinoma?
A. Majority of patients present with flank pain, hematuria, and palpable abdominal mass
B. MRI of Abdomen is helpful in diagnosis for those with CT scan IV allergy dye or ultrasound is inconclusive
C. May have associated anemia, hepatic dysfunction, and hypercalcemia
D. Renal Cell Carcinoma originates from the renal cortex
A. Majority of patients present with flank pain, hematuria, and palpable abdominal mass
B. MRI of Abdomen is helpful in diagnosis for those with CT scan IV allergy dye or ultrasound is inconclusive
C. May have associated anemia, hepatic dysfunction, and hypercalcemia
D. Renal Cell Carcinoma originates from the renal cortex
Answer 32
32. Choice B is the correct answer. Alpha fetal protein and beta HCG are helpful tumor markers for tracking certain cell types for testicular cancer. PSA is a marker for prostate cancer. CEA is a maker for certain types of colon cancer.
Question 32
32. Your patient is a 21 year old male the presents with painless fullness in his right testicular area. This has been present for 1 week. His testicular ultrasound reveals finding suggestive of testicular cancer. Which of the following tumor markers would be helpful to obtain?
A. PSA
B. Alpha Fetal Protein
C. CEA
D. Beta Fetal Protein
A. PSA
B. Alpha Fetal Protein
C. CEA
D. Beta Fetal Protein
Answer 31
31. Choice A is the correct answer. While urosepsis can lead to acute renal failure it is not considered to be an intrinsic cause of renal failure. The renal failure associated with urosepsis comes from volume depletion and hypoperfusion of the kidney, and therefore a pre-renal cause. Vasculitis, acute interstitial nephritis, and acute necrosis are considered intrinsic causes.
Question 31
31. All of the following are intrinsic causes of acute renal failure except:
A. Urosepsis
B. Vasculitis
C. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
D. Acute Tubular Necrosis
A. Urosepsis
B. Vasculitis
C. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
D. Acute Tubular Necrosis
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